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Question #33
QUESTION: Isn't the Holy Spirit incorrectly called
"it" in Romans 8:26 in the King James Bible'?
ANSWER: No. There is nothing wrong with the
translation of "pneuma" in Roman 8:26.
EXPLANATION: The refutation of this popular though
feeble charge against the integrity of the Bible comes from three sources.
First, the Greek language itself, secondly, the hypocrisy of Bible critics
and thirdly, from Jesus Christ Himself. (Since the Bible is our final
authority in all matters of faith and practice,
His testimony should hold considerable influence.)
First, the word translated "itself" in Romans 8:26 is "pneuma" which
means "spirit." (Since the "spirit" is like air (Genesis 1:7, John 3:8) we
use the word "pneumatic" to describe things that are air operated.) In
Greek every word has its own distinct gender, masculine, feminine or
neuter. Masculine gender is denoted by the article "o," feminine by "a,"
and neuter by "to." The word for spirit, "pneuma" is neuter,
a fact which is known to even first year Greek language students. Thus,
the King James Bible correctly translates pneuma "itself"
because it would be grammatically incorrect to translate it "himself" as
many of today's inferior translations do. Since critics of the King James
Bible like to deride it for pretended "mistranslations" of the Greek, it
seems hypocritical indeed to criticize it here for properly translating
the Greek. Then to add insult to ignorance they laud other versions such
as the New American Standard Version, New International Version, and New
King James Version which INCORRECTLY render pneuma as "himself."
Secondly, in adding to their hypocrisy and exposing their disdain for
God's Bible, these same critics, who become indignant at the Holy Spirit
being called "it" in Romans 8 in a King James Bible, will promote
translations such its the New American Standard Version and the New
International Version which call God a "What " in Acts 17:23. The
Authorized Version correctly renders it "Whom."
Thirdly, and most convincingly, is a statement that Jesus Christ makes
in John chapter 4 while dealing with the woman at the well.
Jesus, completely unintimidated by twentieth century scholarship,
doesn't hesitate to say to the woman in verse 22, "Ye worship ye know not
what: we know what we worship: for salvation is of the
Jews."
To whom is Jesus referring to by the word "what?" The next verse
defines His statement perfectly.
"But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshipers shall
worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father
seeketh such to worship him."
Thus we see that Jesus finds referring to His own Father as "what" in
verse 22 a non-issue. While the mighty mice of twentieth
century scholarship would translate an entirely new version over it. Even
though they, in their own casual conversation, find no offense in
referring to the Holy Spirit in the neuter.
Which will you follow'?
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